Building Materials 100 Questions with Answers
1. If ‘p’ is the standard consistency of cement,
the amount of water used in conducting the initial setting time test on cement
is
A. 0.65 p B. 0.85p
C. 0.6p D. 0.8p
Answer: Option B
2.
For complete hydration of cement the water cement
ratio needed is
A.
Less than 0.25
B. More
than 0.25 but less than 0.35
C. More
than 0.35 but less than 0.45
D. More
than o.45 but less than 0.60
Answer: Option C
3.
Gypsum is used as an admixture in cement
grouts for
A.
Accelerating the setting time
B. Retarding
the setting time
C. Increasing
the plasticity
D. Reducing
the grout shrinkage
Answer: Option B
4.
The temperature range in a cement kiln is
A.
5000 to 10000C
B. 10000
to 12000C
C. 13000
to 15000C
D. 16000
to 20000C
Answer: Option C
5.
The role of super plasticizer in a cement
paste is to
A.
Disperse the particles
B. Disperse
the particles and to remove air bubbles
C. Disperse
the particles, remove air bubbles and to retard setting
Answer: Option C
6.
Increase in fineness of cement
A.
Reduces the rate of strength development and leads to
higher shrinkage
B. Increases
the rate of strength development and reduces the rate of deterioration
C. Decreases
the rate of strength development and increases and bleeding of cement
D. Increases
the rate of strength development and leads to higher shrinkage
Answer: Option D
7.
The fineness of cement is tested by
A.
Air-content
method
B. Air-permeability method
C. Le-Chatelier method
D. Vicat’s apparatus
Answer: Option B
8.
For marine works, the best suited cement is
A.
Low heat Portland cement
B. Rapid
hardening cement
C. Ordinary
Portland cement
D. Blast
furnace slag cement
Answer: Option
D
9.
Four main-oxides present in ordinary Portland
cement are: CaO, Al2O3, SiO2, and Fe2O3.Identifty
the correct ascending order of their proportions in a typical composition of
OPC.
A.
Al2O3, Fe2O3,
CaO, SiO2
B. Al2O3,
CaO, Fe2O3, SiO2
C. Fe2O3,
Al2O3, SiO2, CaO
D. Fe2O3,
SiO2, Al2O3, CaO
Answer: Option
C
10. The proper size of mould for
testing compressive strength of cement is
A.
7.05 cm cube
B. 10.05
cm cube
C. 15 cm
cube
D. 12.05
cm cube
Answer: Option
A
11. The specific gravity of commonly
available ordinary Portland cement is
A. 4.92 B. 3.15
C. 2.05 D.
1.83
Answer: Option B
12. A quick-setting cement has an
initial setting time of about
A.
50 minutes
B. 40
minutes
C. 15
minutes
D. 5
minutes
Answer: Option D
13. As per specifications, the
initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement should not be less than
A. 10 minutes B. 20
minutes
C. 30 minutes D. 60 minutes
Answer: Option C
14. In cement generally the increase
in strength during a period of 14 days to 28 days is primarily due to
A. C3A B. C2S
C. C3S D.
C4AF
Answer: Option C
15. Ultimate strength of cement is
influenced by which one of the following?
A.
Tricalcium silicate
B. Dicalcium
silicate
C. Tricalcium
aluminate
D. Tetracalcium
alumino-ferrite
Answer: Option B
16. If ‘W’ is the percentage of water
required for normal consistency of cement, water to be added for determination
of initial setting time is
A. 0.50 W B. 0.62 W
C. 0.75 W D. 0.85 W
Answer: Option C
17. The initial setting time of
cement depends most on
A.
Tri-calcium aluminate
B. Tri-calcium
silicate
C. Tri-calcium
alumino-ferrite
D. Di-calcium
silicate
Answer: Option A
18. Gypsum is added into the raw
materials during manufacture of cement so that final product exhibits
A. Regarded initial setting time
B. Improved modulability for cornices, etc.
C. Increased compressive strength
D. Augmented bond strength
Answer: Option A
19. Soundness test of cement is
carried out of determine its
A.
Alumina content
B. Iron
oxide content
C. Free
time content
D. Durability
under sea water
Answer: Option C
20. Which compound of cement is
responsible for strength of cement?
A.
Magnesium oxide
B. Silica
C. Alumina
D. Calcium
sulphate
Answer: Option B
21. Which type of cement is
recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A.
Ordinary Portland
B. High
alumina
C. Low-heat
Portland
D. Portland
pozzolana
Answer: Option
C
22. One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg
in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A. 30 l B. 35 l
C. 40 l D. 45 l
Answer: Option B
23. The constituent compound in
Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.
Tricalcium silicate
B. Dicalcium
silicate
C. Tricalcium
aluminate
D. Tetrecalcium
aluminoferrite
Answer: Option
C
24. The maximum bulking of sand is
likely to occur at a moisture content of
A.5% B. 8%
C. 11% D. 14%
Answer: Option
A
25. Guniting is the application of
mortar
A.
On a surface under pneumatic pressure
B. On a
vertical surface
C. On brickwork
by manual method
D. Of
fluid consistency for repair works
Answer: Option A
26. Which of the following is the
correct range of fineness modulus sand usable in preparing cement mortar?
A.
1.5 to 2.2
B. 2.6 to
2.9
C. 2.9 to
3.2
D. 5.5 to
6.5
Answer: Option
B
27. Lime mortar is generally made
with
A. Quick lime B. Fat
time
C. Hydraulic lime D.
White time
Answer: Option
C
28. The split tensile of M 15 grade
concrete when expressed as expressed as percentage of its compressive strength
is
A.
10 to 15%
B. 15 to
20%
C. 20 to
2%
D. 25 to
30%
Answer: Option B
29. The approximate ratio between the
strengths of cement concrete at 7 days and at 28 days is
A.
3/4 B. 2/3
C. 1/2 D. 1/3
Answer: Option B
30. The approximate ratio of strength of 15 cm x 30cm concrete cylinder to
that of 15 cm cube of the same concrete is
A. 1.25 B. 1.00
C. 0.85 D.
0.50
Answer: Option C
31. The modulus of elasticity (E) of
concrete is given by
A.
E =1000 fck
B. E
=5700√fck
C. E
=5500√fck
D. E
=10,000√fck
Answer: Option B
32. The optimum number of revolution
over which concrete is required to be mixed in a mixer machine is
A. 10 B. 20
C. 50 D. 100
Answer: Option B
33. A splitting tensile test is
performed on cylinder of diameter D and length L if the ultimate load is p,
then splitting tensile strength of concrete is given by
A. P/Ï€DL B. 2P/Ï€DL
C. 4PL/Ï€D3 D.
4PD/Ï€L3
Answer: Option B
34. As per IS code of practice,
concrete should be cured at
A.50 C
B. 100 C
C.270 C D. 400 C
Answer: Option C
35. While testing the compressive
strength of cement concrete, the correct standard conditions to be maintained
as per IS are
A.
27±30C, 28 days, 90% and 15 cm3
B. 26±20C,
21 days, 80% and 15 cm3
C. 25±10C,
14 days, 75% and 15 cm3
D. 27±30C,
7 days, 70% and 10 cm3
Answer: Option A
36. The ratio of direct tensile
strength to that of modulus of rupture of concrete is
A. 0.25 B. 0.5
C. 0.75 D. 1.0
Answer: Option B
37. What is the minimum value of
individual test results (in N/mm2) for compressive strength
compliance requirement for concrete M20 as per codal provision?
A. fck-
1 B. fck-
3
C. fck-
4 D.
fck- 5
Answer: Option C
38. Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of
samples of concrete?
A. Compression
test
B. Ultrasonic
pulse velocity test
C. Split
test
D. Tension
test
Answer: Option B
39. According to the Indian Standard
specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of concrete should be
cured under a humidity of
A. 90% B. 80%
C. 70% D. 60%
Answer: Option A
40. If one intends to obtain the best
workability of concrete,the preferred shape of aggregate is
A. Round B. Angular
C. Triangular D. Flinty
Answer: Option A
41. A good brick should not absorb
water by weight more than
A.
10% B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%
Answer: Option
B
42. For one cubic meter of brick
masonry, the number of modular brick needed is
A.
400 or less
B. 400 to 450
C. 500 to 550
D. 600 to 650
Answer: Option C
43. The crushing strength of a good
building stone should be at least
A. 50 MPa B. 100 MPa
C. 150 MPa D.
200 MPa
Answer: Option
B
44. The slenderness ratio for masonry
walls should NOT be more than
A. 50 B. 40
C. 30 D. 20
Answer: Option C
45. The most important purpose of
frong in a brick is to
A.
Emboss manufacturer’s name
B. Reduce
the weight of brick
C. From keyed joint between
brick and mortar
D. Improve insulation by
providing ‘hollows’
Answer: Option
C
46. Brick are burnt at a temperature
range of
A.
5000 to 7000 C
B. 7000
to 9000 C
C. 9000
to 12000 C
D. 12000
to 15000 C
Answer: Option C
47. A king closer is a
A.
Full brick
B. 3/4
brick
C. Longitudinally
1/2 brick
D. Crosswise
1/2 brick
Answer: Option B
48. Brick masonry walls and columns
of a building are to be protected from earthquake. The earthquake proofing is
done by providing
A.
Cross walls
B. Less
openings
C. Under-reamed
piles
D. A steel
band at corners above windows below ceiling
Answer: Option
D
49. When the corner of a brick is
removed along the line joining midpoints of adjoining sides, the portion left
is called
A.
Closer
B. Squint
brick
C. Queen
closer
D. King
closer
Answer: Option B
50. The bricks which are extensively
used for basic refractories in furnaces are
A.
Chrome bricks
B. Sillimanite
bricks
C. Magnesite
bricks
D. Fosterite
bricks
Answer: Option C
51. Refractory bricks resist
A.
High temperature
B. Chemical
action
C. Dampness
D. All of
the above
Answer: Option D
52. The standard size of a brick is
A.
20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm
B. 19 cm x
9 cm x 9 cm
C. 18 cm x
9 cm x 9 cm
D. 18 cm x
10 cm x 10 cm
Answer: Option C
53. As per IS classification, the
minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be
A.
75 kg/cm2
B. 100
kg/cm2
C. 125
kg/cm2
D. 150
kg/cm2
Answer: Option B
54. The compressive strength of
heavy-duty bricks, as per IS: 2980-1962, should be not less than
A.
440 kg/cm2
B. 175
kg/cm2
C. 100
kg/cm2
D. 75
kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
55. Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A.
Excessive burning of bricks
B. High
silt content in brick clay
C. High
porosity of bricks
D. Soluble
salts present in parent clay
Answer: Option D
56. According to the relevant IS
code, the weight of the timber is to reckoned at a moisture content of
A. Zero B. 4%
C. 8% D. 12%
Answer: Option D
57. The strength of timber is maximum
when load applied is
A. Parallel
to grain
B. Perpendicular
to grain
C. Inclined
at 450 to grain
D. Inclined
at 600 to grain
Answer: Option A
58. Seasoning of timber is required
to
A.
Soften the timber
B. Harden
the timber
C. Straighten
the timber
D. Remove
sap from the timber
Answer: Option
D
59. The modulus of elasticity of
timber is about
A.
0.5 to 1.0 x 104 N/mm2
B. 1.0 to
1.5 x 104 N/mm2
C. 1.5 to
2.0 x 104 N/mm2
D. 2.0 to
2.5 x 104 N/mm2
Answer: Option A
60. During the conversion of timber
by sawing, in order to obtain strong timber pieces, the cuts should be made by
A.
Ordinary sawing
B. Tangential
sawing
C. Quarter
sawing
D. Radial
sawing
Answer: Option D
61. The moisture content in
structural timber should be
A.
Less than 5%
B. 5 to
10%
C. 10 to
20%
D. 15 to
25%
Answer: Option C
62. Radius splits in timber
originating from ‘bark’ and narrowing towards the ‘pith’ are known as
A.
Heart shakes
B. Star
shakes
C. Cup
shakes
D. Knots
Answer: Option B
63. The moisture content in a
properly seasoned timber will be in the range of
A.
5% to 8%
B. 8% to
10%
C. 10% to 12%
D. 12% to
15%
Answer: Option C
64. The compressive strength in
structural timber is minimum in a direction
A.
Parallel to the grains
B. Perpendicular
to the grains
C. Along
an axis inclined at 450 to the grains
D. Along
an axis inclined at 600 to the grains
Answer: Option B
65. Timber can be made reasonably
fire-resistant by
A.
Soaking it in ammonium sulphate
B. Coating
with tar paint
C. Pumping
creosote oil into timber under high pressure
D. Seasoning
process
Answer: Option A
66. The maximum deflection in timber
beams or joints should not be greater than
A.
Span/300
B. Span/320
C. Span/360
D. Span/380
Answer: Option C
67. Dry rot in timber is caused by
A. Lack
of ventilation
B. Lack
of light
C. Immersion
in water
D. Alternate
wet and dry atmosphere
Answer: Option A
68. Wood is impregnated with creosote
oil in order to
A.
Change its colour
B. Protect
against fungi
C. Protect
the annular layers
D. Fill up
the pores
Answer: Option B
69. What is the ratio of the elastic
modulus of structural timber in longitudinal direction to that in the
transverse direction?
A. 1/2 to 1 B. 1/10 to 1/20
C. 1 to 2 D. 10 to 20
Answer: Option D
70. What is the treatment for making
timber fire resistant?
A.
ASCU treatment
B. Abel’s
process
C. Creosoting
D. Tarring
Answer: Option B
71. The advantage in using plywood is
that the
A.
Tensile strength is equal in all direction
B. Higher
tensile strength in longer direction
C. Higher tensile
strength in shorter direction
D. Lower
tensile strength in longer direction
Answer: Option
A
72. The age of a log of timber can be
estimated by
A.
Diameter of pith
B. Thickness
of bark
C. Number
of annular rings
D. Number
of medullary rays
Answer: Option C
73. Bureau of Indian Standard
classifies bitumen into grades 65/25, 85/40 etc. The first and second number
respectively refer to
A. Softening point and penetration
B. Penetration and softening point
C. Flash point and penetration
D. Flash point and softening point
Answer: Option
A
74. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a
A.
Thermosetting materials
B. Thermoplastic
materials
C. Elasto-plastic
materials
D. Rigid
plastic materials
Answer: Option
B
75. Which one of the following types
of steel is used in the manufacture of rails?
A.
Mild steel
B. Manganese
steel
C. Cast
steel
D. Bessemer
steel
Answer: Option
B
76. The carbon content of structural
steel is
A.
Less than 0.1%
B. 0.10 to
0.25%
C. 0.25 to
0.60%
D. 0.65 to
1.00%
Answer: Option
B
77. In paints, linseed oil is used as
A.
A thinner
B. A drier
C. A
vehicle
D. A
water-proofing base
Answer: Option
C
78. An arrangement for temporarily
supporting a structure from beneath for safety, is known as
A.
Jacking
B. Underpinning
C. Supporting
D. Hauling
Answer: Option B
79. In building construction, the
place for providing damp-proof course is at the
A.
Basement level
B. Window
sill level
C. Lintel level
D. Roof level
Answer: Option
A
80. Rise in a flight should not exceed---numbers
A.
10
B.
11
C.
12
D.
13
Answer: Option
C
81. A vertical member placed at the ends of flight connecting the handrail
is termed as
A.
Winder
B.
Newel Post
C.
Starting
D.
Ending
Answer: Option
B
82. The
vertical side member of a shutter frame is known as
A. Style
B. Reveal
C. Post
D. mullion
Answer: Option
A
83. The clinker is formed at a
temperature of
A. 500oc
B. 1000oc
C. 1200oc
D. 1500oc
Answer: Option
D
84. Asbestos cement
A. Is brittle
B. Wraps due to changes in
humidity
C. Strength is lowered when
saturated by water
D. All the above
Answer: Option
D
85. The percentage of water for
normal consistency is
A. 5-15%
B. 10-25%
C. 15-25%
D. 20-30%
Answer: Option
D
86. The compound of OPC which
reacts immediately with water & also sets first is
A. C3S
B. C2S
C. C3A
D. C4AF
Answer: Option
C
87. Jhumb bricks are
A. Under burnt
B. Over burnt
C. Kutcha
D. None of these
Answer: Option
B
88. Refractory bricks are used
for
A. Retaining walls
B. Columns
C. Piers
D. Combustion chamber
Answer: Option
D
89. According to NBC, how many
fire resistant constructions are adopted
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: Option
C
90. Full form of DPC is
A. Damp preventing class
B. Damp proofing course
C. Damp proofing class
D. Damp preventing course.
Answer: Option
B
91. Spirit of wine is used as
a----in varnish
A. Resins
B. Base
C. Solvent
D. Carrier
Answer: Option
C
92. For doors, number of hold
fasts provided is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: Option
C
93. The most reliable estimate is
A. Plinth area estimate
B. Detailed estimate
C. Cube rate estimate
D. Approximate estimate
Answer: Option
B
94. One cubic meter of sand will
roughly weigh
A. 100kg
B. 600kg
C. 1600kg
D. 2600kg
Answer: Option
C
95. Plinth area rate =
A. Total cost * plinth area
B. Total cost/plinth area
C. Plinth area/total cost
D. None of these
Answer: Option
B
96. Which of the following metals
are used for damp proofing
A. Lead
B. Copper
C. Aluminum
D. All of these
Answer: Option
D
97. The minimum thickness, for
single coat plastering is
A. 4mm
B. 8mm
C. 6mm
D. 12mm
Answer: Option
C
98. Finishing of mortar joint is
A. Painting
B. Pointing
C. Plastering
D. Distempering
Answer: Option
B
99. Saponification is
A. Formation of cracks
B. Formation of dull patches
C. Breaking of plastering
D. Breaking of lintel
Answer: Option
B
100. The desired colour of paint is
due to the presence of
A. Driers
B. Vehicle
C. Colouring agent
D. Base
Answer: Option
C
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